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  • "barbapapa" started this thread

Posts: 4

Reg: Aug 8th 2011

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Saturday, October 8th 2011, 11:31am

are you supposed to ovulate around the same day every month with your clomid cycles?

So I am just coming to the end of my second round of 50mg Clomid, taken CD2-6. On the first round I ovulated on day 15, as pinpointed by charting, and luteal phase was also 15 days. On the second round my temps are a bit ambiguous (thermal shift quite gradual) but it looks like I have ovulated on day 14 (the 'bottom' of the shift, if you see what I mean). But I'm now on DPO18, with no AF, temps still high, and just got a BFN. What on earth is going on?? I wondered whether I ovulated a bit later than my temps / CM would both suggest but I was under the impression that clomid regulates the cycle such that every month is more or less the same. Is that right? It would take a 4-5 day difference for my luteal phase to be the same as last months'....head starting to spin....

On a related matter, can anyone tell me whether charting is enough to go on to pinpoint ovulation on clomid cycles? My consultant just scanned me on day 21 in the first cycle and confirmed ovulation, but I hear so many women talking about progesterone results etc. that I haven't been offered? Should I ask?

Bit more about me: - started trying June 09, miscarried at 8 weeks December 10. Polycystic ovaries, 1000mg metformin, 2 months' clomid. Sigh........

Thanks so much for reading xx

This post has been edited 1 times, last edit by "barbapapa" (Oct 8th 2011, 11:32am)

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Saturday, October 8th 2011, 12:48pm

Hi Barba, I was on clomid and in my experience my cycles have varied in length from 31days to 36days. It does regulate them to an extent as i use to go without a period for months but with clomid, my cycles varied by around 5 days.
I haven't taken temps before so couldnt really comment on that. Perhaps wait until monday then contact ur clinic and see what they suggest hun.

Best of luck to you xxx
Dec 2011 beautiful angel baby5 twins Nov 2012 :boy: :girl:



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Saturday, October 8th 2011, 8:32pm


A progesterone test is the only real way of knowing if ovulation has taken place. 7 days after ovulation there is a sharp rise in progesterone. This is why it is usually tested on day 21.

To be sure you have ovulated your progesterone should be over 30. This is what is considered to be 'safe' and means you have definitely ovulated and can sustain a pregnancy.

I would go back to your cons and ask for the bloods.

The scans should be checking for overstimmulation and should be performed around day 10 onwards.

Our miracle was born on 25.02.2010!!

  • "barbapapa" started this thread

Posts: 4

Reg: Aug 8th 2011

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Monday, October 10th 2011, 5:18pm

Hi, thanks for your responses. Just to let you know that after some further internet research I think the answer to the clomid question is that with some ladies it turns them into clockworks and others it still varies quite a bit.
I found another possible explanation for a over-long luteal phase with BFN and that is a corpus luteum cyst - clomid increases the chance of getting these. Whether I had one or not who knows, it is back to square 1 anyway for me as got AF this morning.
I guess I will ask consultant about bloods after round 3. xfingers

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Monday, October 10th 2011, 7:45pm

My darlig wifey's cycle has been any where from 2-4 days later than usual (28day) whilst taking clomid or had intermittent spotting and then a late AF.
So in answer to your question clomid may/can alter your cycle length. But as long as progesterone over 30-35nmol your ovulating 88)

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